A Muslim argument for Bible corruption:

For Example: Some Christian translations of the Old Testament in Exodus 7:1 where God calls Moses a god (Elohim), add the word "like" or "as" a god to pharaoh . The words "like" or "as" are not in the Hebrew text. Do you see how the 'translators' remove divinity here and add it there as though the word of God All Mighty can be changed, that is the current Bible.

It is nice to see that our questioner admits that the Bible is "the word of God All Mighty." He is right that the Hebrew text does not contain the word "as" or "like." The Authorized Version of Exodus 7:1 reads as follows:

"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet."

Obviously this classical Christian translation was not affected by Mohamed's allegation. The context makes it perfectly clear that the LORD was not attributing deity to Moses here. The text says "I have made thee a god to Pharaoh." It does not say "I have made thee God." Being made a god to Pharaoh is not the same as being made God. Translators who have added the word "as" have done so to make that particular point more clear.

Do you see the Major difference between calling Moses "like a god" and "Moses the god"

The difference is not between "like a god" and "Moses the god." The difference is between "like a god to Pharaoh" and "a god to Pharaoh." There is no essential difference in the given context. Let the Muslim not twist and change the text so as to make a great difference where none exists. The Hebrew text does not have the definite article that he added. Does it not bother him to add his own word to the text? A word that does change the essential meaning!

What support would Christians have in trying to claim divinity for Jesus, if Moses, a clear Prophet is called god, "None".

None, if that is all that is involved in the doctrine of the deity of Christ. The doctrine is supported by much greater evidence than this.

There is another aspect of this. In the Bible God has quite some humor, and we can find a lot of sarcasm in particular when confronting the false gods of this world. The event of the Exodus in particular was to do just that. this is clear from the following reference in Exodus 12:12 that the LORD intended to "embarrass" the Egyptian gods:

For I will pass through the land of Egypt on that night, and will strike all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both man and beast; and against all the gods of Egypt I will execute judgment: I am the LORD.

In fact, not only the last, but all the plagues reported were striking against one or more of the Egyptian gods and showing their helplessness.

When reading "And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: ..." God in effect states that he will make it so that Pharaoh has to bow his will before Moses as much as he might think at this time that he is God, i.e. the absolute ruler whom everyone has to obey.

In the book The Culture of Ancient Egypt, by John A. Wilson (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1951) Chapter 4 is entitled "The King and God." Page 85 has the quote:

In one respect death made no change in the existence of the king: he was a god on earth in this life, and he would join the circle of the gods in the next life; he ruled in this would and he would be ruler in the next.

This Pharaonic pride of being god is addressed with this statement and and this pride will be broken by the only one and true God through the agency of Moses, to whose message Pharaoh will have to bow, acknowledging him as superior.

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