To present Jesus as sinless because he did not have a father, makes it more questionable, as Jesus was born just of woman, according to the Bible, who gave the forbidden fruit to Adam. And again, what the Bible say of a person born of a woman? In the Bible Job 15:14 it states: What is man, that he could be pure or born of woman, that he could be righteous? And Job 24:4 states: How then can a man be righteous before God? How can one born of woman be pure?
One needs to read passages as they are intended. What do these verses say?
And even the Qur'an says so about him specifically in
and the word for holy is faultless/sinless as far as I remember. It is mentioned in the announciation of the virgin birth, but not in a causal relationship.
The first verse in Job is just a statement about the pervasive sinfulness of man. The Hebrew parallelism makes it clear that "born of a woman" is used here just as a synonym for being human.
What is man, that he could be pure or one born of woman, that he could be righteous?
The verse does not talk about sins being passed down by being born from a woman. And the second quote only ask a question of "how" and does not deny the possibility in principle.
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