the whole of the north of Africa. Jews and Christians were hostile to one another, and,
if either party had endeavoured to alter the text of the Bible, the other party would have
detected and exposed the crime by producing the original. Yet the Jews have always
accepted the same Hebrew Old Testament as that which we do, and all Christians accept the
same Greek New Testament. Moreover, then as now Christians were divided into many sects,
as the Qur'an testifies (Surah V., Al Maidah, 17), which often persecuted one another. It
was obviously impossible for them therefore to conspire together to corrupt the Bible. You
will in some measure understand this when you consider whether or not it would be possible
for the Muslims (Sunnis, Shi'ites, Wahhabis, Sanusis, and all their other sects) to
agree together to corrupt the text of the Qur'an, and to accept the corrupted form of the
book.
Again, the Qur'an informs us (Surah III., Al 'Imran, 109, 110) that "Among the
People of the Book is an upright folk . . . and these are of the righteous." If so,
they would not have permitted, without a protest, such a crime as the corrupting of the
Holy Scriptures. Is this statement of the Qur'an true or false? If true, is not your
assertion impossible?
The prophecies which are contained in the Bible, some of them fulfilled (e.g. those
regarding Babylon, Tyre, Egypt, Edom, in Isaiah; and those about